Today I came across a problem in elementary analysis. It is quite interesting, so I thought I'd share it here.
The problem is whether the following statement is true:
If a sequence of differentiable functions
converges pointwisely to a function f and if the derivatives
converges uniformly to a function g (say all convergence are on some open subset of
, for the conclusions are local anyway), then the limit f is differentiable and
.
When
n = 1 this is a standard theorem in mathematical analysis (see e.g. Rudin's Principle of Mathematical Analysis). However, I have not seen this explicitly stated for higher dimensions in any book, and if one just copies say the proof in Rudin's book line-by-line, one only concludes that the directional derivatives of
f exist in every possible direction everywhere. Since in higher dimensions this is not quite sufficient to conclude that
f is differentiable, I struggled for a while on whether the result is true as stated. (By the way, the result is trivial if one assumes all

are continuously differentiable rather than just differentiable.)
My friends and I finally managed to give a positive answer to the above question, and I thought I'd present the proof here. (The proof is just a simple variant of say the proof in Rudin.)
Suppose

is a sequence of differentiable functions in

that converges pointwisely to a function
f and suppose their derivatives

converges uniformly to a function
g. Then to argue differentiability at

, consider the sequence of functions

It is easy to verify that

is a sequence of continuous functions of
x, and that they are Cauchy in

. But by assumption

converges pointwisely to

Since the uniform limit of a sequence of continuous functions is continuous,
F is continuous at

, so
f is differentiable at

and

. This completes the proof.